>but a question *I* have did not get answered. If an object has been
>donated, and no appraisal is given (no formal written appraisal obtained
>by the donor) can the museum reveal to the donor the amount that they
>have assigned to the object? For instance, we received a graphaphone and
>the donor wanted a letter for his tax purposes saying that he'd donated
>the object and a value for it. Are we allowed to say "the museum has
>assigned a value of $400 for its internal purposes to this object" - or
>more importantly, how is this worded for everyone else out there?


        Unless the IRS Code has changed, and I have not seen notice of a change,
this WOULD be a violation and is not a good practice. The recipient of a
gift is not allowed to give an appraisal (i.e. assign a monetary value)
that is used for tax deduction puprposes. If the donor used your statement,
however you worded it, as the basis for claiming a deduction on their tax
return and it was challenged in an audit there would be the potential for a
serious problem. In the case of a $400 item the odds are nothing would
happen because its not likely to trigger an audit in and of itself. But,
where do you draw the line? Once you start doing this other donors will
expect the same treatment and you will be appraising items of greater and
greater value.

Bill Mulligan



William H. Mulligan, Jr. [[log in to unmask]]
Associate Professor of History
Director - Forrest C. Pogue Public History Institute
6B Faculty Hall
Murray State University - Murray, KY 42071-3341
Phone:(270) 762-6571 Fax:(270) 762-6587
Pogue Institute web site:
http://campus.murraystate.edu/academic/faculty/Bill.Mulligan/Index.htm
Personal web site:
http://campus.murraystate.edu/academic/faculty/Bill.Mulligan/mull-pers.htm

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